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Muslim and Jewish groups denounce German circumcision ruling


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I've always found it funny that people think female circumcision is cruel (which it is) but male circumcision isn't. It isn't your body, so why should it be your decision ? Both also reduce pleasure.

A teeny bit off topic but I once was in a heated discussion about circumcision (the guy was for it and I was against it) and I accidentally blurted out "well are you circumcised?" in front of the entire class... he actually answered :lol:

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Because one is a western tradition (male circumcision) and the other (female circumcision) is primarily African and Arab, that's why we think only female circumcision is backwards and barbaric but male circumcision is OK.

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Did I insert 'lol' after it, to give you the impression it wasn't a serious question??

You're right....it's the foreskin and clitoris are not 'analogous'.....but are in fact homologous.

Is that a serious enough answer?

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No. Male circumcision is also an arab and muslim tradition. The difference is female circumcision has severe long term effects on a female's ability to have and enjoy sex. Male circucision is a quick procedure that heals in days and has no long term effects on sexual ability or enjoyment.

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Islam is a religion of the West? Nobody outside the West practices islam? really? You'd better not tell people in Africa, Pakistan, and Indonesia about this. Islam started in Saudi Arabia, I'm not sure that fits squarely within the definition of the "West".

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Your answer actually disproves your point. The clitoral hood actually has the effect of covering the clitoris and preventing it from getting stimulating. Women with overly developed clitoral hoods actually get operations to make them smaller, so that they can have better access to the clitoris and enjoy sex more. The point of female circumcision is to reduce a woman's pleasure and desire from sex. So removal of the foreskin, which as you say is analgous to the clitoral hood, is in no way analogous to female genital mutilation.

http://www.labiaplas..._reducation.htm

Not the same thing as female "circumcision". As I previously stated, female genital mutilation would be analgous to removing the head and a portion of the shaft of the penis.

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Removing the female's clitoral hood is analagous to the removal of the male's foreskin, since the foreskin is homologous to the clitoral hood.

The problem you have is that you don't understand the complete definition of the word 'analgous' or 'homologous', when talking in the terms of biology vs everyday meaning of the word analogous, and you are conflating the meaning of analogous between the two body parts, with the removal of the two body parts.

It can be correctly said that removing or circumcising the foreskin IS analgous to the removing and of the clitoral hood....however, the two structures(clitoral hood and foreskin) are NOT analogous, meaning that they perform a similar function, but have a different evolutionary origin....

Analogous:

VS Analogous

...when in fact, both those structures, have the same same evolutionary origin AND perform a similar function or share similar properties.

again......one more time....

BOTH are forms of circumcision in males and females respectively.

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\

Well it's a good thing we were having a debate in English and not limited to the field of Biology then.....

So basically after being horibly slaughtered in an argument and exposed for nowing absolutely nothing on the subject, you decide to then randomly limit this argument to biological definitions? Even then you could argue that the clitoral hood vs. foreskin is biologically analagous as male and female genetalia evovled in unison but are indeed seperate organs that evolved seperately. Both the clitoral hood and foreskin perform a similar role.

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