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Whoops. Sorry to you and @gurn. I had a brain fart while posting about WW2 mustard gas. I accidentally typed WW2 instead of WW1. What I was trying to infer without actually pointing it out, was that the Allied powers had already committed a war crime by having and producing the gas 20 years after it was banned by treaty. They were fully ready and prepared to use it on the Axis soldiers as well.
Imagine if Germany had used it to stop the soldiers on Normandy on D-Day when they began to break the German lines. The US would have had to nuke Germany instead of, or right along with, Japan.
But for the grace of God, WW2 could have been much more horrific than it actually was.
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All it would have taken was lots of small pellets with grams of the mixture inside to be rained down on the Allied soldiers. Mustard gas is some seriously nasty stuff.
Also, the Germans were already on occasion experimenting with and using even more potent gasses on their Jewish prisoners.
They could have done the same thing on the battlefield if Hitler had chosen to.
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They could have, but there's one thing many historians can't seem to definitively answer: the "why" part. Hitler fought in WW1 where gas was prevalent, he must have seen enough there to figure it either wouldn't have done an effective enough job, or he calculated that by introducing gas the Allies would have fought back with it with mixed results leading to a coin toss as to who came out with the upper hand.
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